50 Most Important General Knowledge Questions for KVS PGT/TGT/PRT Exam
Practice the 50 most important General Knowledge Questions for KVS PGT/TGT/PRT Exam. Students can attempt top 50 General Knowledge Questions here and can understand the problems in detail with the help of explanations given along with the answers.
To crack the KVS PGT/TGT/PRT Exam, candidates must practice the most frequently appearing questions of different sections of the exam. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy.
1. In which year, the Danish East India company was formed?
Explanation: In 1616 AD, the Danish East India company was formed and they established their settlements at Tranquebar in Tamilnadu (1620) and Serampur in Bengal (1676). Though, they failed to strengthen themselves in India and finally in the beginning of 19th century, they sold all their settlements to the British and went back to their country.
2. Who founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1896 to carry on humanitarian relief and social work?
a) Ramakrishna Paramahansa
b) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
c) Swami Vivekananda
d) Blavatsky and Olcott
Explanation: The correct answer is option c) – Swami Vivekananda.
3. Under which among the following acts, Civil Services started in India?
a) Charter Act 1813
b) Charter Act 1833
c) Charter Act 1853
d) Charter Act 1793
Explanation: The civil services were started in under the Charter Act of 1833. In 1853, the civil services became an open competition however the exams were conducted in London only. The 1st exams were held in 1855 under the board of control’s supervision.
4. Who among the following is called the father of Nationalism in India?
a) Raja Rammohan Roy
b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation: Raja Rammohan Roy is called Father of Indian Nationalism. Bal Gangadhar Tilak is called Father of Indian Unrest. Both of them made great contribution to Indian Nationalism.
5. which among the following Viceroy’s tenure, Simon Commission was appointed?
a) Lord Wellington
b) Lord Irwin
c) Lord Reading
d) Lord Chelmsford
Explanation: The correct answer is option b) – Lord Irwin
6. Who was the author of the Book ‘Planned Economy of India’?
a) M. Visvesvaraya
b) Dada Bhai Nairobi
c) Bhim Rao Ambedkar
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation: Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya, was Diwan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918. He received India’s highest honour, the Bharat Ratna, in 1955.He wrote a book “Planned Economy for India” in 1934.
7. Who wrote the book “How to pay for Money”?
a) Amartya Sen
b) Adam Smith
c) Karl Marx
d) Professor Keynes
Explanation: The correct answer is option d) – Professor Keynes
8. Author of A Tale of Two Cities is _______________
a) Charles Dickens
b) Jonathan Swift
c) John Bunyan
d) Thomas Hardy
Explanation: The correct answer is option a) – Charles Dickens
9. Which book is not written by Rabindranath Tagore?
b) Court Dancer
d) Crescent Moon
Explanation: Chidambara is written by Sumitranandan Pant.
10. Which of the following book is written by India’s first prime minister?
a) Discovery of India
b) A passage to India
d) My experiments with Truth
Explanation: The correct answer is option a) – Discovery of India
11. August 9, 2018 was observed as the 76th anniversary of which Indian freedom movement?
a) Quit India movement
b) Dandi March
c) Non Violence Movement
d) Civil Disobedience Movement
Explanation: The 76th anniversary of Quit India movement was observed across India on August 8, 2018. On this day in 1942, father of the nation Mahatma Gandhi gave the famous clarion call of ‘Do or Die’ to all Indians to drive the British away from the country.
12. Consider the following
- I. It was the first India’s Civil Disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi.
- II. It was protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct about Champaran Satyagraha?
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Explanation: Champaran Satyagraha was the first India’s Civil Disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar. Hence, C is the correct option.
13. Who started the ‘Gandhian Plan’?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) M.N. Roy
d) None of the above
Explanation: Gandhian Plan was put forward by Shriman Narayan Aggarwal in 1944; who was the principal of Wardha Commercial College.
14. Which Indian mass movement began with the famous ‘Dandi March’ of Mahatma Gandhi?
a) Khilafat Movement
b) Non-Cooperation Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Quit India Movement
Explanation: The correct answer is option c) – Civil Disobedience Movement.
15. Which among the following was the immediate cause of Quit India Movement?
a) Withdrawal of British from South East Asia
b) Failure of Cripps Mission
c) Failure of August Offer
d) Arrest of Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: The correct answer is option b) – Failure of Cripps Mission.
16. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
a) First Five Year Plan: 1951-56
b) Third Five Year Plan: 1961-66
c) Seventh Five Year Plan:1980-85
d) Tenth Five Year Plan: 2002-07
Explanation: Seventh Five Year Plan was launched during the period of 1985 to 1990.This plan was started by Rajiv Gandhi government when Dr. Manmohan Singh was Deputy Chairman of planning commission.
17. The Eklavya schools has been proposed to be set up for Scheduled Tribe (ST) population in every blocks where the ST population is more than _______ percent
Explanation: Eklavya schools to be started for Scheduled Tribe population. Every block with more than 50 percent ST population and at least 20,000 tribal people will have Ekalvya schools at par with Navodaya Vidyalayas by 2022.
18. The ‘Revitalising Infrastructure and Systems in Education (RISE) by 2022’ initiative has been proposed to be launched in the next 4 years at an investment of Rs _________
a) Rs 50,000 crore
b) Rs 75,000 crore
c) Rs 90,000 crore
d) Rs 1,00,000 crore
Explanation: Initiative named ‘‘Revitalising Infrastructure and Systems in Education (RISE) by 2022’’ to be launched with a total investment of Rs 1,00,000 crore in next 4 years.
19. How much amount has been allocated to the Medium, Small and Micro Enterprises (MSMEs) in the Union Budget 2018-19?
a) Rs 3650 crore
b) Rs 3794 crore
c) Rs 3526 crore
d) Rs 3412 crore
Explanation: Rs 3794 crore has been allocated to MSME Sector.
20. What is the estimated budgetary expenditure for infrastructure for 2018-19?
a) Rs 5.87 lakh crore
b) Rs 5.67 lakh crore
c) Rs 5.77 lakh crore
d) Rs 5.97 lakh crore
Estimated budgetary and extra budgetary expenditure on infrastructure for 2018-19 increased to Rs 5.97 lakh crore against estimated expenditure of Rs 4.94 lakh crore in 2017-18.
21. The Article 35A of the Indian Constitution pertains to which state?
b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation: The Article 35A of the Indian Constitution was in news recently as the Supreme Court on August 6, 2018 adjourned the hearing on pleas challenging Constitutional validity of Article 35A pertaining to Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
22. Which of the following is a constitutional body?
a) National Development Council
b) NITI Aayog
c) Finance Commission
d) None of the above
Explanation: Except Finance Commission; none of the body is a constitutional body because others all bodies are established after an act of the Parliament.
23. The Supreme Court recently allowed Union government to implement the reservation in promotion policy for SC/ST employees under which article of the Constitution?
a) Article 19
b) Article 18
c) Article 17
d) Article 16
Explanation: The Supreme Court has allowed the Union government to implement the reservation in promotion policy for SC/ST employees in accordance with the law but did not stay a Delhi High Court judgment that had quashed an August 1997 office memorandum issued by the Centre providing for reservation in promotions for Dalit and tribal employees.
24. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) There is no constitutional provision in India about the Planning Commission
b) Planning commission was established in January 1951
c) National Development Council was established in August 1952
d) Jawaharlal Nehru, was the first chairman of the Planning Commission
Explanation: National Development Council was established on 15 March 1950.In his first Independence Day speech in 2014, Prime Minister Modi announced his intention to dissolve the Planning Commission. It has since been replaced by a new institution named NITI Aayog.
25. Article 368 is related to…………?
a) Constitutional amendment
b) Supreme Court’s composition
c) Centre State Relations
d) None of the above
Explanation: Article 368 in the Part XX of the Indian constitution deals with the powers of the parliament to amend the constitution and its procedure.
26. RBI has allowed which banks to become Small Finance Banks (SFB) under certain criteria?
a) NBFC Banks
b) State Co-operative Banks
c) Rural Co-operative Banks
d) Urban Co-operative Banks
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on June 6, 2018 decided to allow voluntary transition of the Urban Co-Operative Banks (UCB) into Small Finance Banks (SFB), a move that is aimed at bringing UCBs into mainstream banking.
27. What is the type of Indian economy?
Explanation: The planners of Indian Economy adopted the concept of mixed economy. A mixed economy consists of private and public sectors.
28. What is the base year for measuring inflation at wholesale Prices Index (WPI) in India?
Explanation: The new base year for measuring inflation is 2011-12.
29. India is the biggest producer, as well as the largest consumer and importer of which of the following crops?
Explanation: India is the biggest producer, as well as the largest consumer and importer of pulses, but productivity is low. However, for 2016-17, there is a massive rebound in pulse production while Rabi pulses suggests harvest of 134 lakh tons (108 lakh tons), Kharif output is estimated at 87 lakhs tons (previous year 55 lakh tons) taking the annual total to a humungous 221 lakh tons (164 lakh tons).
30. Bank Rate is defined as the rate at which:
a) RBI lends short term loans to commercial banks
b) a commercial bank can lend to its customers
c) RBI lends long term loans to commercial banks
d) the commercial banks are able to borrow overnight funds from RBI
Explanation: Bank rate is the rate of interest which a central bank charges on the long term loans and advances that it extends to commercial banks and other financial intermediaries.
31. Which is the Capital of Nagaland?
Explanation: The correct answer is option d).
32. Which place is called the Financial Capital of India?
a) Kolkata, West Bengal
b) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
c) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
Explanation: The correct answer is option d).
33. Bhopal is the capital of which Indian state?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: The correct answer is option b).
34. What is the capital of Jharkhand?
Explanation: The correct answer is option a).
35. Which northern state of India has two capital cities?
a) Jammu and Kashmir
c) None of these
d) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation: Jammu and Kashmir has two capital cities – Jammu (in winter) and Srinagar (in summer).
36. Google and NASA have joined hands to identify which two new planets around distant stars?
a) Kepler 80g, Kepler 90i
b) Kepler 90g, Kepler 80i
c) Kepler 81g, Kepler 90i
d) Kepler 90i, Kepler 82g
Explanation: Google and NASA said on December 2017 that advanced computer analysis identified two new planets around distant stars, including one that is part of the first star system with as many planets as Earth’s solar system.
37. India was declared free from trachoma which is a ___________ infection of the eye.
d) None of the above
Explanation: India was declared free from infective Trachoma, a contagious bacterial infection of the eye. The infection causes inflamed granulation on the inner surface of the lids.
38. The world’s fastest supersonic cruise missile BrahMos was successfully test fired from which Indian Air Force’s (IAF) fighter jet?
Explanation: The world’s fastest supersonic cruise missile BrahMos was successfully test fired from Indian Air Force’s (IAF) Sukhoi-30MKI fighter jet for the first time.
39. Which of the following are drought resistant plants?
b) Aloe Vera
d) All of the above
Explanation: Drought-resistant plants such as cacti and succulents, make use of an enhanced form of photosynthesis to minimise water loss.
40. What is another name for visceral leishmaniasis?
a) Kala azar
Explanation: Researchers have stumbled upon evidence of an unknown virus that may be responsible for the persistence of kala-azar or visceral leishmaniasis, a parasite infection that has spawned epidemics and sickened thousands of Indians for over a century.
41. What does the acronym ‘PMSBY’ mean?
a) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
b) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Bharat Yojana
c) Pradhan Mantri Sushil Bharat Yojana
d) Pradhan Mantri Sukanya Bima Yojana
Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana – The scheme offers to provide you or your family a cover of up to Rs. 2 lacs in case of any mishap, resulting into death or disability of the insured.
42. What is the full form of “ICICI”?
a) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
b) Investment Corporation of Induatrial Credit for India
c) Investor Corporation for Insurance Commission of India
d) Industrial Convention and Investment Corporation of India
Explanation: Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
43. What is the full form of “BRIC”?
a) Bangladesh, Romania, Indonesia and Cambodia
b) Brazil, Rwanda, India and Croatia
c) Bangladesh, Romania, India and Cambodia
d) Brazil, Russia, India and China
Explanation: Brazil, Russia, India and China
44. What is the full form of “NTPC”?
a) National Thermal Power Company
b) National Textile Policy Company
c) National Thermal Power Council
d) National Thermal Power Corporation
Explanation: The full form is National Thermal Power Corporation.
45. What is the full form of “IRBM”?
a) Intermediate Resource Ballistic Missile
b) Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile
c) Intermediate Range of Ballistic Missile
d) Intermediated Range Ballistic Missile
Explanation: The full form is Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile
46. Which is the capital of “Afghanistan”?
Explanation: The correct answer is Kabul.
47. Which is the capital of “Australia”?
Explanation: The correct answer is Canberra
48. “Tirana” is the capital of ____.
d) Costa Rica
Explanation: The correct answer is Albania.
49. Which is the capital of “Barbados”?
d) San Jose
Explanation: The correct answer is Bridgetown.
50. Which is the capital of “Canada”?
d) Santo Domingo
Explanation: The correct answer is Ottawa
Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in making unnecessary guess works while attempting General Knowledge Questions in KVS PGT/ TGT/ PRT Exam.